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	<title>Comments on: Re: Senator Leahy and &#8216;Conservative Activism Pure and Simple&#8217;</title>
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		<title>By: Robert</title>
		<link>http://www.flamesoffreedom.com/2009/06/18/re-senator-leahy-and-conservative-activism-pure-and-simple/comment-page-1/#comment-216</link>
		<dc:creator>Robert</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Sat, 20 Jun 2009 05:21:21 +0000</pubDate>
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		<description>Are you talking about a law from Congress which requires states give only half votes?  If so, that would certainly seem to violate the right guaranteed by the 15th Amendment as a facial matter by denying people a full and fair vote.  In that case, the courts should certainly say so.  But, in my view, that doesn&#039;t implicate the &quot;appropriateness&quot; standard so much as it does the standard rule that Congress cannot diminish a Constitutional right.

As to the broader question of what role the courts should have in determining what is or is not &quot;appropriate,&quot; I do believe that to be a political question which the courts ought to avoid.  Certainly, the courts will have a role in making sure that Acts of Congress bear some rational relationship to the authority Congress has been given (e.g., Congress can&#039;t bail out car companies under the 15th Amendment), but I think that standard is met here.  However, although applying a &quot;congruent and proportional&quot; standard certainly wouldn&#039;t be much of a stretch, as long as Congress hasn&#039;t violated a Constitutional right, I think it does go farther than the text of the 15th Amendment allows.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Are you talking about a law from Congress which requires states give only half votes?  If so, that would certainly seem to violate the right guaranteed by the 15th Amendment as a facial matter by denying people a full and fair vote.  In that case, the courts should certainly say so.  But, in my view, that doesn&#8217;t implicate the &#8220;appropriateness&#8221; standard so much as it does the standard rule that Congress cannot diminish a Constitutional right.</p>
<p>As to the broader question of what role the courts should have in determining what is or is not &#8220;appropriate,&#8221; I do believe that to be a political question which the courts ought to avoid.  Certainly, the courts will have a role in making sure that Acts of Congress bear some rational relationship to the authority Congress has been given (e.g., Congress can&#8217;t bail out car companies under the 15th Amendment), but I think that standard is met here.  However, although applying a &#8220;congruent and proportional&#8221; standard certainly wouldn&#8217;t be much of a stretch, as long as Congress hasn&#8217;t violated a Constitutional right, I think it does go farther than the text of the 15th Amendment allows.</p>
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		<title>By: Roger Clegg, Ctr for Equal Opportunity</title>
		<link>http://www.flamesoffreedom.com/2009/06/18/re-senator-leahy-and-conservative-activism-pure-and-simple/comment-page-1/#comment-214</link>
		<dc:creator>Roger Clegg, Ctr for Equal Opportunity</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Fri, 19 Jun 2009 13:45:01 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.flamesoffreedom.com/?p=165#comment-214</guid>
		<description>But, Robert, this seems to suggest that the Court cannot under any circumstances determine that voting-rights legislation is not &quot;appropriate&quot; (to quote the Fifteenth Amendment&#039;s enforcement clause).  Do you really believe that?  Suppose Congress passes a law that gives whites only a half-vote in perpetuity, or blacks only a half-vote, or requires white voters to wear their underwear on the outside of their pants whenever they vote.  If you would allow all of that, then okay; but if you won&#039;t, then you must be conceding that there is a role for the Court to ensure that the legislation is &quot;appropriate,&quot; and it doesn&#039;t seem to me much of a stretch to say that this means &quot;congruent and proportional&quot; (the Court&#039;s standard to date) to the Fifteenth Amendment&#039;s substantive guarantees.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>But, Robert, this seems to suggest that the Court cannot under any circumstances determine that voting-rights legislation is not &#8220;appropriate&#8221; (to quote the Fifteenth Amendment&#8217;s enforcement clause).  Do you really believe that?  Suppose Congress passes a law that gives whites only a half-vote in perpetuity, or blacks only a half-vote, or requires white voters to wear their underwear on the outside of their pants whenever they vote.  If you would allow all of that, then okay; but if you won&#8217;t, then you must be conceding that there is a role for the Court to ensure that the legislation is &#8220;appropriate,&#8221; and it doesn&#8217;t seem to me much of a stretch to say that this means &#8220;congruent and proportional&#8221; (the Court&#8217;s standard to date) to the Fifteenth Amendment&#8217;s substantive guarantees.</p>
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