Over on Bench Memos, Roger Clegg has made a couple of posts discussing Section 5 of the Voting Rights Act and, in particular, an apparent statement by Senator Leahy that finding Section 5 to be unconstitutional would be an act of “conservative [judicial] activism.”  While I think the question is close enough that throwing around the label of judicial activism is unwarranted, I do have to disagree with Roger that it would be appropriate for the Court, today, to strike down Section 5.  I suppose you could say that I am of the school of thought which believes that “the Court cannot legitimately conclude that Section 5 might once have been constitutional but, because of changes in the facts, isn’t any longer,” and I find unpersuasive Roger’s argument to the contrary.

Roger’s attempted counterargument hinges on the observation that “courts determine facts all the time, and changes in factual circumstances may mean that what once met an — unchanging — constitutional standard no longer does.”  In a his follow-up post, he adds this analogy:

If a policeman asks a judge for a search warrant and produces no evidence, he won’t get it; if he produces good evidence, then he will get it. That’s not judicial activism. Likewise, as the evidence of severe discrimination peculiar to the South diminishes, so will the defensibility of Section 5 before the courts. That’s not judicial activism either.

To be sure, Roger’s observation is accurate and his policeman example is an excellent and familiar demonstration of what he observes.  Unfortunately, Roger misses one key difference between warrant requirements and the Voting Rights Act: The warrant requirements mandated by the Constitution itself.

When the Constitution tells us in the 4th Amendment that “no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause,” it is expressly requiring the courts to make a factual determination.  In order for a warrant to issue, the police must set forth sufficient facts to establish that they have probable cause.  If the police cannot carry their burden to show probable cause, the Constitution tells us that “no Warrants shall issue,” which means that if any warrant does issue, that warrant is unconstitutional.  Facts make all the difference because the Constitution says that they do.

The Constitution makes no similar factual demands in the 15th Amendment upon which Section 5 (and the Voting Rights Act in general) is based.  Instead, the 15th Amendment declares a right, declares a list of things which may not infringe that right, and then tasks Congress with enforcement.  Nowhere does the 15th Amendment impose factual requirements on Congress; there is no standard of evidence which Congress must meet to show that its actions are allowed.

As Americans, we should all rightly expect that Congress will bases its acts of legislation on solid factual grounds.  I am more than convinced that with respect to the blind renewal of preclearance requirements, Congress has failed to do so.  Every legislator who voted in favor of renewing preclearance deserves to face tough questions about how they could possibly, on the basis of present day facts, have found racial discrimination of such severity that intruding on state sovereignty remains necessary.  But in this case it is up to the political process, not the courts, to make sure that those questions get answered.

This entry was posted on Thursday, June 18th, 2009 at 4:47 pm and is filed under Law. You can follow any responses to this entry through the RSS 2.0 feed. You can leave a response, or trackback from your own site.

2 comments so far

 1 

But, Robert, this seems to suggest that the Court cannot under any circumstances determine that voting-rights legislation is not “appropriate” (to quote the Fifteenth Amendment’s enforcement clause). Do you really believe that? Suppose Congress passes a law that gives whites only a half-vote in perpetuity, or blacks only a half-vote, or requires white voters to wear their underwear on the outside of their pants whenever they vote. If you would allow all of that, then okay; but if you won’t, then you must be conceding that there is a role for the Court to ensure that the legislation is “appropriate,” and it doesn’t seem to me much of a stretch to say that this means “congruent and proportional” (the Court’s standard to date) to the Fifteenth Amendment’s substantive guarantees.

June 19th, 2009 at 5:45 am
Robert
 2 

Are you talking about a law from Congress which requires states give only half votes? If so, that would certainly seem to violate the right guaranteed by the 15th Amendment as a facial matter by denying people a full and fair vote. In that case, the courts should certainly say so. But, in my view, that doesn’t implicate the “appropriateness” standard so much as it does the standard rule that Congress cannot diminish a Constitutional right.

As to the broader question of what role the courts should have in determining what is or is not “appropriate,” I do believe that to be a political question which the courts ought to avoid. Certainly, the courts will have a role in making sure that Acts of Congress bear some rational relationship to the authority Congress has been given (e.g., Congress can’t bail out car companies under the 15th Amendment), but I think that standard is met here. However, although applying a “congruent and proportional” standard certainly wouldn’t be much of a stretch, as long as Congress hasn’t violated a Constitutional right, I think it does go farther than the text of the 15th Amendment allows.

June 19th, 2009 at 9:21 pm

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